http://dx.doi.org/10.4153/CMB-2006-029-0
Canad. Math. Bull. 49(2006), 281-284
Published:2006-06-01 Printed: Jun 2006
Carl Johan Ragnarsson
Wesley Wai Suen
David G. Wagner
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Abstract
A well-known theorem states that if $f(z)$ generates a PF$_r$
sequence then $1/f(-z)$ generates a PF$_r$ sequence. We give two
counterexamples
which show that this is not true, and give a correct version of the theorem.
In the infinite limit the result is sound: if $f(z)$ generates a PF
sequence then $1/f(-z)$ generates a PF sequence.
© Canadian Mathematical Society, 2013
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